Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
10.06.2025 04:02
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
Why do subpar women think that they are nines and tens?
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
Have you ever been physically attacked by a demon?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.